Islamic marriage advice and family advice

Divorce

Divorce decree

Hi
I am married under the sharia law and married under the English law.
My question is...
If i get divorced under the sharia law and i am still married under the English law am i free to be with another man and marry again under sharia law? Or do i have to be divorced under both laws to be able to re-marry under sharia law?

Any advice would be greatly appreciated
Thank you

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9 Responses »

  1. You can marry someone else if only u r divorced through sharia law u don't need English or Chinese or Japanese law as long as u divorced through sharia law

  2. If you have been divorced according to applicable sharia law you are divorced and can marry someone else. Masha Allah, if you should die tomorrow, you will die a divorced woman. However, you are obligated to file the necessary papers in the UK so that your first marriage is also ended in that country. This is to protect yourself and your future husband from any legal entanglements and to insure your former husband has absolutely no legal holds on you of any kind and vice versa. Some people who find themselves in your exact situation generally have an Islamic marriage and upon the final decree of the civil divorce of the first marriage, may officiate the second marriage in the country they live in. Again, this is important so that your marriage is recognized the by country you reside in without any legal problems in the future. It is important not to postpone the official civil marriage paperwork following the civil divorce.

  3. Muslims are required to follow the laws of the countries they live in, so you should divorce your husband legally as well as Islamically.

    To me, it also sounds weird and suspicious that you'd want the UK government to believe you are still married to someone you're not. Why would you want to remain legally married to someone you've divorced Islamically?

    • "Muslims are required to follow the laws of the countries they live in" - where does it say that in the Quran or Hadith?

      • Several scholars have concluded that, actually. You can read a bit about it here:
        http://www.daruliftaa.com/node/5852

        Also, if Muslims aren't prepared to follow other countries' laws, they really have no business immigrating or fleeing to non-Muslim countries. And non-Muslim countries will have every right to decline receiving Muslim inhabitants. If Muslims aren't prepared to integrate into whatever society they decide to live in, they should not live there, simple as that. I don't want to follow the law in Saudi Arabia, therefore, you'll never ever see my settle down there and refuse to abide by the law. Makes sense, yes?

        • There is ***condition apply thing .

          As long as its not against sharia you can obey .
          Please read it once in that link which you have provided .

          Muslims are generally obliged to abide by the laws of the land and the country they live in, whether it is a Islamic state (al-khilafa), Muslim countries, or non-Muslim countries such as those in the west, as long as they are not ordered to practice something that is against Shariah

          • Of everything that's written in the article, you choose to highlight the one thing that is ambiguous and which Muslims use as an argument to not follow the laws of the country they live in.

            Also, most Western countries' laws are not completely opposite from the laws of Sharia. In fact, Western countries give Muslims more freedom than most Muslim countries do.

          • Lindita ,

            At a basic level if some thing is against sharia but legal in country law then a practicing Muslim will still go ahead with sharia .

            For example
            In the case of marriage , If a muslim woman is divorced by husband in islamic way but legal process is taking lot of time (even after her iddah) then if she gets remarried with new man in an Islamic way ,then islamically this marriage is valid . But she needs to keep trying to get that legal formalities completed as a good citizen .

            In western countries despite being married , spouses who commits adultery with others are not tried in any criminal court but simply ignored as an issues to be solved among couples .

            If some body tries to file a bigamy case due to above situation then country law will not recognize new Islamic marriage as valid marriage as per country law .

            If some muslim can't practise some thing due to law of land then he should simply keep quiet but that doesn't mean that a you innovate some thing in sharia(by including laws of lands) ..this belief will make some body deviate from true islamic path ..

        • Why don't you want to follow the law in Saudi Arabia?

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