Does not having sex for a certain period amount to an automatic divorce?
Salam,
I heard that if a husband and wife (of Islamic faith) do not engage in sexual intercourse for a certain length of time during their marriage ( due to quarrelling) then their marriage is automatically void ( automatically ends in divorce by Islamic rule).
I have been told several lengths of time....3months...4 months....6 months..2 years. Is this true?
And if so, what is the correct period of time that would dictate the automatic divorce. My sister has not been intimate with her husband for 2 and a half years because he treats her very badly (emotional, verbal and physical abuse)
One day he fought with her and said to her " have some dignity, why would you sleep beside someone who has absolutely no respect for you?'
So, she stopped sleeping next to him. She asked him to get professional help to deal with his anger issues etc. but he doesn't want to admit that he has a problem. He continues to abuse her. They have been married for 16 years.
Also my best friend is abstaining from having sexual relations with her husband for more than a year because she gets angry with him and doesn't want to do it.
They have both asked me the same questions that I have asked you so hopefully you can clarify this issue with answers.
J.A.K
Sister Khadejah
- 43ameena
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Wa alaykum as-salam,
There is no such rule. Lack of sexual contact does not terminate the marriage, no matter the length of time. A marriage can only be ended through an approved procedure such as talaq or khul'ah.
However, what you have described is no way to live. Your sister should give her husband an ultimatum, either to get some counseling to deal with his anger issues, or grant her a divorce.
Wael
IslamicAnswers.com Editor