Islamic marriage advice and family advice

Three times divorce before rukhsati


Separation and Halaalah

I was married and divorced after a year - before rukhsati. Three times divorce was given in written form. I need to ask two questions.
1. Is divorce happens or this divorce is considered only 1 ..
2. Two years have passed, if divorce occurs, is it valid to remarry the same person without halala?


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5 Responses »

  1. Assalaamualaikam

    There are different schools of thought about the concept of triple talaq; my understanding is that the widest consensus is that triple talaq refers to three separate divorces on three separate occasions. I'd recommend that you discuss the matter with a scholar or an imam who you respect and trust.

    Halala is not acceptable and not part of Islam. In order for any marriage to be valid, it needs to be entered into with the honest intention to marry and have a halal relationship with the other person. The idea of marrying someone just to sleep with them and divorce them doesn't have any fit with Islamic values.

    Midnightmoon editor

    • Midnightmoon.

      I think the main question that she was alluding to is that she had not consummated the marriage at the time of divorce. In that case, how does the divorce/remarrying process differ in Islam.

      Allah knows best.


  2. pls suggest something i just wanna know that divorce occurs or not is it considered 1 divorce or it is completly done

    • According to all four imams three talaqs are considered valid even if given tgether. Its these new maulvis who is spreading this misconception that it is considered as one.

      • Salam Mary,

        I think saying divorce 3 times or any number of times in one sitting counts as one. I'd be happy to change my view if there was any evidence showing that it counts as three. Do you have any evidence to support that saying it three times counts as a permanent ban?

        My view is that it's a change in state, in order to divorce you must first be married. So a three time divorce would work this way:
        1) Marry girl, divorce her,
        2) Ask to marry her again, she agrees, then divorce her again.
        3) Ask to marry her again, she agrees, then divorce her again.

        It doesn't make sense to do it this way:
        1) Marry girl, divorce her.
        2) You are no longer married to her, but you tell her you're divorcing her anyway.
        3) And then even though neither of you two agreed to be in a marriage past the first divorce, you divorce her again.

        So that's my evidence, please show why you think a three time saying would count three times without there ever being a make up? Also, if it is just pronouncing it, how would the husband tell his relatives he's divorced without avoiding pronouncing it? What if his wife was hard of hearing and he said he divorces her but he has to repeat it three times before she hears it once?

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